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TEXT: Revelation 1

SUBJECT: Exposition of Revelation 1-3: Survey of Chapter 1.

Having spent the last several months in a study of John's Epistles, I want to begin tonight a series on his other Epistle, "Revelation". I must, however, limit myself to the first three chapters. I don't believe that Revelation is beyond interpretation ("Secret things belong to the LORD our God, but the things that are revealed belong to us"). But it is beyond my ability to interpret. The first three chapters, though, are fairy straightforward--and highly profitable. They are written, of course, to "the seven churches of Asia". In the sermons to come, God willing, I hope to take up one message per week. But tonight is an introduction. It tells us who is writing, to whom he is writing, and--most importantly--why.

Revelation 1 opens with a purpose statement; it tells us why it was written. And the first word is "revelation". This means "an uncovering". Thus, the purpose of the Book is not to conceal or obscure, but to reveal or make plain. The object of this revelation comes next, "The revelation of Jesus Christ". Hence, it is not written to expose the Antichrist, the Beast, the False Prophet, 666, the Pope, Napoleon, Hitler, Henry Kissinger, NATO, or the European Common Market! It was written to disclose Jesus Christ. Revelation, like the rest of the Bible is Christ-centered. If we go away from it thinking of anyone/anything but Christ, we have missed the big picture.

Revelation is a strange, and sometimes shocking, Book. Thus, people have often wondered if it can be trusted. Vv.1b-2 answer that concern for us. Its content comes from Jesus Christ; it was given by an angel; and put on paper by John. Can Christ be trusted? He is "truth". Is a holy angel likely to lie? He is not. Will an Apostle prove reliable? No doubt about it. Thus, the words of this Book are true. Not every interpretation put on them, of course. But "every word of God is pure"--including those found here.

Revelation is a prophecy. It was not written to recount the past, but to tell its first readers something about the future. But to what future date does it refer?

1.Some Christians are futurists, and as the name implies project the events of this Book to the distant future, at least 1,900 years from the time of its writing. I don't know how this view can be squared with the words of vv.1,3: "...things which must shortly take place...(and) "the time is near". It is sometimes argued "with the Lord a day is as a thousand years and a thousand years as a day", thus, to God, the time is near. This would be a valid argument, however, only if this Epistle was written to God! But it was not. It was written to real churches in the First Century, to whom 2,000 years or more is a very long time.

2.Other believers take the historicist approach, and argue that the prophecies of this Book took place in the First Century. As proof, they cite vv.1,3 (which I mentioned before); the churches of Asia were real churches, whose existence has long since ceased, and the use of MELLO ("shall take place") in v.19. Everywhere else the word is used in Revelation, it means "to occur right away", see 3:2, 10:4 as examples. This is the approach that I take. Revelation is a prophecy of the cataclysms of the First Century, especially the destruction of the old Jerusalem, and its replacement by "the Jerusalem which is from above". There is one objection to this view: V.7 says that "He is coming with the clouds, and every eye will see Him, and they also who pierced Him. And all the tribes of the earth will mourn because of Him. Even so. Amen." This, it is argued, surely refers to "the Second Coming"--and not any event that took place in the First Century. It's obvious, isn't it?

No it is not. "Cloud" in the Bible often stands for "glory". And God (or Christ) coming, usually signifies judgment. Such judgments often took place in the Old Testament, see Isaiah 19:1-4. Thus, there is nothing wrong with identifying this "coming in the clouds" with the destruction of Jerusalem in 70 A.D. And if we do, much in New Testament prophecy begins to make sense.

A blessing is attached to everyone who reads the Book and obeys it, v.3.

So far, this is what we know: the Book was written to reveal Jesus Christ in the events of the late First Century. And everyone who sees Him in these events, and acts accordingly, will be blessed.

After stating his aim in writing, John introduces the main characters involved, vv.4-8. They are:

1.Himself, "John". This is the Apostle, of course.

2.Seven Churches in Asia, i.e., Ephesus, Smyrna, Pergmos, Thyatira, Sardis, Philadelphia, and Laodicea. It is sometimes thought that these churches "represent" the seven periods in church history. But this makes no sense because all seven churches existed at the same time! Why did John single out these seven in a world full of churches? For the same reason that Paul chose Rome, Philippi, Colosse, and so on--Because Christ told him to do so. Is there a secret meaning in their order? Look at a map, and you'll see that they are arranged geographically. Ephesus is the nearest to Patmos (from which John wrote), Laodicea the farthest, and the other churches in-between.

3.Jesus Christ, who is called "the faithful witness, the firstborn from the dead, the ruler over the kings of the earth, to Him who loved us and washed us from our sins with His blood, and has made us kings and priests to His God and Father, to Him be glory and dominion forever and ever...I am Alpha and Omega, the beginning and the end, who is, and who was, and who is to come, the Almighty". Why would John speak of Christ in such extravagant language? Is he just piling superlative on superlative? He is not! There is a reason, which will become plain in the chapters to come. In a word, it is this: Christ is all and all to His church.

a.If Ephesus is unloving, He is "the One who loved us".

b.If Smyrna is suffering Imperial persecution, He is "the ruler of the kings of the earth".

c.If Pergamos and Thyatira are infected by heresy, He is "the faithful witness".

d.If Sardis is dead, He is "the firstborn from the dead".

e.If Philadelphia is weak, He is "the Almighty".

f.If Laodicea is poor, He has "dominion forever and ever".

There is a fulness in Christ; He meets our every need...and more.

All right. We now know who is writing, "John"; to whom he is writing, "the seven churches in Asia"; and what he is going to write about, Jesus Christ.

He then goes on to tell us where he got his prophetic word. It was from Christ, of course. But not in the usual way. He was not merely "led" to write certain things, but given a vision which he would then describe.

It was given to John while on the Isle of Patmos, a rocky outpost in the Aegean Sea (between modern-day Greece and Turkey). How did he get there? He was banished to that place "for the word of God and for the testimony of Jesus Christ". When did he receive the vision? "On the Lord's day"--which most have taken to mean on a given Sunday.

The vision began with a loud voice. It was Christ, who identified Himself as "Alpha and Omega, the First and the Last". His commission was then given: "What you see, write in a book". Finally, the people to whom he would send the book were specified, "to the seven churches which are in Asia".

John turns around to see the Man who spoke so loudly and finds Him an awesome being. He is a man, with the usual anatomy: "feet, chest, head, hair, eyes, hands, mouth and face". But He is more than a man. For his "eyes are a flame of fire"; His "feet are as fine brass"; in His "hand He holds seven stars"; and "out of His mouth proceeds a sharp, two-edged sword".

The vision overpowers the Apostle, he "falls at His feet as dead". But He is quickly revived. This Majestic Being is someone John knows; someone on whose breast he once reclined. His character is unchanged: "Do not be afraid, I am the First and the Last" He says.

Recovered, John sees Him among "seven golden lampstands" (or candlesticks as the KJV puts it). And in His hand are "seven stars". What are these things? Are they to be taken literally or symbolically? V.20 makes it plain: "The seven stars are the angels of the seven churches, and the seven lampstands which you saw are the seven churches". The lampstands represent the seven churches of Asia. The stars stand for their "angels". What does this mean? The word signifies "messengers". They are not, therefore, "guardian angels who look over the church". Nor are they, necessarily, the pastors of the church. But, quite simply, they are the seven trusted men who will carry this prophecy to the churches. By being in Christ's hand, they will arrive safely and transmit the message.

Christ protected these men. The message got through--to the original churches who read them...and to us. What does the chapter teach us?

1.Jesus Christ dwells with His churches. The churches of Asia (you'll soon see) were "less than perfect"--much less. But Christ has not abandoned them. He has shown them much patience and longsuffering.

2.Jesus Christ is concerned about sin in His churches. Thus, He chides them for their evil ways. And His reproof is no small thing, for "His countenance is like the sun shining in its strength" and "the word of His mouth is like a sharp, two-edged sword".

3.Jesus Christ will meet His churches' every need. He is "the one who was dead and is alive and lives forever more". The Lord in heaven is identical in character to the Man who once walked the earth and cared for His people as a shepherd cares for his youngest and weakest lambs.

And so, Jesus Christ has something to say to His churches--not in general only, but also in particular. He had one thing to say to Ephesus; another to Philadelphia. And, He has something to say to us, too. Words of sympathy; words of reproof; words of warning; words of hope. There is no question that He has something to say to us. The only question that remains is this: "Are we listening"?

"He who has ears to hear, let him hear what the Spirit says to the churches".

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